In my article Faraday’s Law Paradox, I have explained that in a magnetically induced coil the line integral of electric field is paradoxically zero in contraction with Faraday’s law. This paradox has aroused a long discussion which also reveals that the air gap between the coil’s terminals confused the understanding of the paradox. The closed coil below makes this paradox sharper. I will give my solution to this paradox.

Please read the article at

Coil and resistor induction paradox pdf or word

http://pengkuanem.blogspot.com/2015/02/coil-and-resistor-induction-paradox.html

or

https://www.academia.edu/11113117/Coil_and_resistor_induction_paradox

Did you conclude that Farday’s law is not true, or simply it needs to be written in another form? You said that:

Curl(Em) = dB/dt

no longer holds, which means that an magnetically induced E-field does not produce a magnetic flux, but I assume:

Curl(Ee) = dB/dt

still holds?

Great article, but I think I mat not be smart enough to fully appreciate it. 🙂

Thanks.

My point is that Faraday’s law is true in physical sense but badly written in math. For this formula : Curl(Em) = dB/dt

Em should not be electrical field, but is a force of different type. I have explained here why:

https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics.electromag/LYcI-7Ine0c/qjvO005mBUkJ