In my article Faraday’s Law Paradox, I have explained that in a magnetically induced coil the line integral of electric field is paradoxically zero in contraction with Faraday’s law. This paradox has aroused a long discussion which also reveals that the air gap between the coil’s terminals confused the understanding of the paradox. The closed coil below makes this paradox sharper. I will give my solution to this paradox.
Please read the article at
Coil and resistor induction paradox pdf or word
http://pengkuanem.blogspot.com/2015/02/coil-and-resistor-induction-paradox.html
or
https://www.academia.edu/11113117/Coil_and_resistor_induction_paradox
Did you conclude that Farday’s law is not true, or simply it needs to be written in another form? You said that:
Curl(Em) = dB/dt
no longer holds, which means that an magnetically induced E-field does not produce a magnetic flux, but I assume:
Curl(Ee) = dB/dt
still holds?
Great article, but I think I mat not be smart enough to fully appreciate it. 🙂
Thanks.
My point is that Faraday’s law is true in physical sense but badly written in math. For this formula : Curl(Em) = dB/dt
Em should not be electrical field, but is a force of different type. I have explained here why:
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics.electromag/LYcI-7Ine0c/qjvO005mBUkJ